# Why are the same concertos numbered differently?



## fairbanks (Jun 25, 2014)

I have been listening to a great deal of JS Bach on organ, violin, and harpsichord these past few years. It is obvious that I am not a classically trained student yet I have this seemingly odd question. Why, for instance, did JS Bach write and number his Violin Concerto BMV 1041 and his Harpsichord Concerto BMV 1058 when they are both the same yet featuring a different solo instrument? Seems a great deal of work to re-write a whole score.


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## violadude (May 2, 2011)

Well, he would have to have re-written the whole score in order to transcribe the violin concerto into a harpsichord concerto. The violin reads on a single treble clef staff while a harpsichord reads from a grand staff, like a piano. Plus he would have to add parts to the soloist so that the right and left hand had something to do when it switched to the harpsichord concerto and that would probably affect the orchestration a bit as well.


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## DrKilroy (Sep 29, 2012)

Apart from that, I do not think that Bach numbered his works himself, so this is not really his fault. 


Best regards, Dr


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## KenOC (Mar 7, 2011)

Bach didn't number his concertos at all -- these BMV numbers were assigned years later by Wolfgang Schmieder.

He re-used his works quite often, transcribing them for use in different performance settings, using individual movements in cantatas (or vice versa), and so forth. Definitely a lot of work to re-write a whole score, but less work than composing a new one! Later composers (eg, Beethoven, Schoenberg, Copland etc.) did likewise.


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## fairbanks (Jun 25, 2014)

Gentlemen, thank you for helping me see why for a number of reasons. I appreciate the comments.


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